SECTION SEVEN OF THE SEVENTH TRUMPET Revelation 11:15-18 1. THE FACTS STATED Revelation 11:15-16 15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there followed great voices in heaven, and they said,--We should not overlook the fact that these words describe what John saw and heard in heaven; they belong to the vision, but they announce some momentous event. Since there were only seven trumpets to sound, and this one was the last, it must indicate the ending of something. In Revelation 10:7 we are told that when the seventh angel "is about to sound, then is finished the mystery of God." This can have no other meaning than that the seventh trumpet sounds the end of time. It is the last trump to sound when the dead shall be raised. (1 Corinthians 15:52; 1 Thessalonians 4:16.) The preceding verse says the third "Woe cometh quickly." That means that when the events that were to come under the second woe had past, it would be only a short time till the end would come. The kingdom of the world is become the kingdom of our Lord, and of his Christ:--The King James Version says "kingdoms"; but the Revised uses the singular "kingdom." Commentators agree that the Revised is correct. Unless this verse is properly understood there will be little prospect of rightly understanding much that is to follow in this book. Three questions deserve careful consideration: (1) What is meant by the kingdom becoming God's? (2) When will it become his? (3) Why is it referred to as the kingdom of both God and Christ? A kingdom in its fullness includes a king, territory, subjects, rule, and law. Sometimes, like other words, by a figure of speech (whole for part) it is used when only one feature is indicated. Thayer's Greek Lexicon, first definition, gives royal power, kingship, dominion, rule as its meaning. Acts 1:6 is given as an example. The Jews had the law of Moses, they were in the territory, they were the subjects; they wanted Jesus to restore the reign or rule, yet they said restore the kingdom. Evidently that is the meaning of the word in the verse we are considering. The sovereign dominion, royal power, will finally come back to the Father. Luke 16:23 and John 19:42 are plain examples of using the whole for a part. "Lazarus" stands for the spirit of Lazarus and "Jesus" means the body of Jesus. Regarding the second question we should note: God was king over Israel before they demanded a man for a king (1 Samuel 8:4-9.) This kingdom (rule) was taken from the Jews because they killed Christ. (Matthew 21:38-43.) Christ established a kingdom which began after his return to the Father, and Christians were citizens of it. (John 18:36; Colossians 1:13 Revelation 1:5-9.) The kingdom--royal dominion or rule--was to be taken away from the Jews and given to another nation --Christians. This reign since Pentecost has resided in Christ. After the judgment it will be returned to the Father. (1 Corinthians 15:24-26.) At the present time Christ has the legal right over all (1 Peter 3:22), but in the final state he himself will be subject to God. (1 Corinthians 15:27-28.) During the present age Satan has usurped a wicked rule over the world, but this is not legally his and, therefore, has no bearing on the argument that Christ is now a reigning king. Finally, it may be asked how it can be also called the kingdom "of his Christ," if the dominion will then be turned back to God? We may as well ask how the kingdom now can he called the "kingdom of God," if the dominion belongs to Christ? That it is called both now is evident from many passages. (Matthew 6:33; Matthew 21:43; John 3:3; Matthew 20:21; John 18 36.) In like manner the final kingdom (heaven) is called the "kingdom of Christ and God." (Ephesians 5:5) Revelation 22:1 speaks of "the throne of God and of the Lamb." It is perfectly clear that in the broad general sense whatever is God's is also Christ's, but that does not conflict with the fact that Christ is now reigning and will turn that reign back to God at the judgment. That seems the evident meaning of the text in hand. But if by ally chance the passage should be applied to Christ's rule before the final judgment, still there is nothing in the words to show that absolute righteousness will prevail. The reason for knowing that such a state will prevail in heaven is the fact that we are told that "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God." (1 Corinthians 15:20.) The things that lead to sin will not be there, and all dying in sin will not be there. (Revelation 21:8.) Such is not the case while we are on earth. Hence, the only application possible, if the text refers to Christ's reign on earth, is that it would mean a time when all could or would have a chance to serve him if they desired. This happens to be true now; but, for reasons already given, is not the application of the text. The distinction between all serving Christ and all having the privilege to do so will be fully developed when we discuss the millennium mentioned in chapter 20. Earthly kingdoms will not all be converted and become God's kingdom a thousand years before the final judgment; for the all-sufficient reason that after the thousand years are finished there will still be "nations" engaged in the great final battle just preceding the final judgment. (Revelation 20:7-11.) This is another reason why "kingdom" in Revelation 11:15 refers to heaven instead of to a period of absolute and universal righteousness on earth preceding the judgment. and he shall reign for ever and ever.--The expression "our Lord" refers to God, for the additional expression "his Christ" will admit of no other application. The pronoun "he"--singular number--must refer to God or Christ, not to both. For the reasons already given, and the fact that the reign is to be turned back to God at the judgment, it is evident that it refers to God. saying,--Regarding the twenty-four elders see notes on Revelation 4:4. These words picture what John saw in heaven; they are in the vision and only indicate that when the redemption of man has been accomplished the angelic creatures will ascribe all praise to God.