[3.] Hence it remains clear to us, that the miracles which they say belong to Christ’s childhood, are false, and the inventions of certain who bring them into notice. For if He had begun from His early age to work wonders, neither could John have been ignorant of Him, nor would the multitude have needed a teacher to make Him known. But now he says, that for this he is come, “that He might be made manifest to Israel”; and for this reason he said again, “I have need to be baptized of Thee.” Afterwards, as having gained more exact knowledge of Him, he proclaimed Him to the multitude, saying, “This is He of whom I said, After me cometh a Man which is preferred before me.” For “He who sent me to baptize with water,” and sent me for this end, “that He should be made manifest to Israel,” Himself revealed Him even before the descent of the Spirit. Wherefore even before He came, John said, “One cometh after me who is preferred before me.” He knew Him not before he came to Jordan and baptized all men, but when He was about to be baptized, then he knew Him; and this from the Father revealing Him to the Prophet, and the Spirit showing Him when He was being baptized to the Jews, for whose sake indeed the descent of the Spirit took place. For that the witness of John might not be despised who said, that “He was before me,” and that “He baptizeth with the Spirit,” and that “He judgeth the world,” the Father utters a Voice proclaiming the Son, and the Spirit descends, directing that Voice to the Head of Jesus. For since one was baptizing, the other receiving baptism, the Spirit comes to correct the idea which some of those present might form, that the words were spoken of John. So that when he says, “I knew Him not,” he speaks of former time, not that near to His baptism. Otherwise how could he have forbidden Him, saying, “I have need to be baptized of Thee”? How could he have said such words concerning Him?